Monday, January 21, 2008

Wittgenstein and the Grasshopper

I didn't want to waste any time on this topic, but it has been popping up in the blogosphere here and there, and in the words of Popeye, "I've had all I can stand, I can't stands no more!"

In 1978 a philosopher named Bernard Suits wrote a book titled The Grasshopper: Games Life and Utopia. In that book, Suits gives a definition of 'game.' From his only mention of Wittgenstein, it is apparant that Suits takes his definition to be a refutation of Wittgenstein's statement that "if you look at [the proceedings that we call 'games'] you will not see something that is common to all...." (PI, §66) Concerning Wittgenstein's advice to "look and see whether there is anything common to all," Suits replies, "This is unexceptionable advice. Unfortunately, Wittgenstein himself did not follow it. He looked, to be sure, but because he had decided beforehand that games are indefinable, his look was fleeting, and he saw very little." (The Grasshopper, p.21)

In a recent interview, Tom Hurka, philosopher at the University of Toronto, and author of the introduction for the recent reprint of The Grasshopper, is more explicit:

I think Suits's definition decisively refutes Wittgenstein's claims, and it does so because it looks at a level Wittgenstein didn't consider. He saw the surface differences between games—that some use playing-cards and some don't, that some are amusing and some not—and concluded that there can't be anything they have in common. But Suits's analysis operates at a deeper level, finding a shared structural feature that's consistent with all these surface differences, one that involves the pursuit of a certain type of goal, restrictions on the permitted means to that goal, and an attitude that accepts those restrictions because they make activity governed by them possible. That structural feature can be found in card games, cricket, chess, rock-paper-scissors—any game you like. But Wittgenstein didn't see it because he was looking only at the surface.

And on the back of The Grasshopper's cover, Simon Blackburn writes that Suits “engages not only Wittgenstein but human life itself at the highest level, in a book that challenges philosophical orthodoxies, while all the time flowing like honey.”

These are fantastic claims. Wittgenstein's fleeting, shallow look at the meanings of words (in this case, 'game') has been engaged and decisively refuted by a little-known philosopher masquerading as a grasshopper. Fortunately for Wittgenstein, the claims are ridiculous (that is, worthy of ridicule).

Reading all of this, I can only wonder with Duck whether the Philosophical Investigations is taught in school anymore. For (as he comments, and I'll elaborate below) the claims by Hurka and Blackburn indicate a lack of familiarity with (or understanding of) the relevant sections of the Investigations.

Now, I have no intention of reading The Grasshopper (I don't have any interest in the definition of 'game'). But (just for this post) I did read Hurka's "Games and the Good" in which he summarizes and applies Suits's definition of 'game' (Hurka wants to use Suits's definition to argue that excellence in games is good). In the opening pages, Hurka repeats the claim that Suits refutes Wittgenstein:

A unified explanation of why excellence in games is good requires a unified account of what games are, and many doubt that this is possible. After all, Wittgenstein famously gave the concept of a game as his primary example of one for which necessary and sufficient conditions cannot be given but whose instances are linked only by looser "family resemblances." If Wittgenstein was right about this, there can be no single explanation of why skill in games is good, just a series of distinct explanations of the value of skill in hockey, skill in chess, and so on.

But Wittgenstein was not right, as is shown in a little-known book that is nonetheless a classic of twentieth-century philosophy, Bernard Suits’s The Grasshopper: Games, Life and Utopia. Suits gives a perfectly persuasive analysis of playing a game as, to quote his summary statement, "the voluntary attempt to overcome unnecessary obstacles." (pp. 1-2)

Then, after a summary of Suits's definition, Hurka makes the following admission:

This analysis will doubtless meet with objections, in the form of attempted counterexamples. But Suits considers a whole series of these in his book, showing repeatedly that his analysis handles them correctly, and not by some ad hoc addition but once its elements are properly understood. Nor would it matter terribly if there were a few counterexamples. Some minor lack of fit between his analysis and the English use of "game" would not be important if the analysis picks out a phenomenon that is unified, close to what is meant by "game," and philosophically interesting. (p. 4)

I will not discuss Suits's definition (as summarized by Hurka), or give counter-examples (of which there are many). Hurka's remark that "a few counterexamples" would not "matter terribly" is a tacit admission that there are such examples. But he dismisses them because "some minor lack of fit between his analysis and the English use of 'game' would not be important if the analysis picks out a phenomenon that is unified, close to what is meant by 'game,' and philosophically interesting." What Hurka doesn't realize is that this last sentence concedes Wittgenstein's point!

Here are the relevant sections of the Investigations:

66. Consider for example the proceedings that we call "games". I mean board-games, card-games, ball-games, Olympic games, and so on. What is common to them all?—Don't say: "There must be something common, or they would not be called 'games'"—but look and see whether there is anything common to all.—For if you look at them you will not see something that is common to all, but similarities, relationships, and a whole series of them at that. To repeat: don't think, but look! […]

68. […] What still counts as a game and what no longer does? Can you give the boundary? No. You can draw one; for none has so far been drawn. (But that never troubled you before when you used the word "game".)
[…]


69. How should we explain to someone what a game is? I imagine that we should describe games to him, and we might add: "This and similar things are called 'games'". And do we know any more about it ourselves? Is it only other people whom we cannot tell exactly what a game is?—But this is not ignorance. We do not know the boundaries because none have been drawn. To repeat, we can draw a boundary—for a special purpose. Does it take that to make the concept usable? Not at all! (Except for that special purpose.) [...]

75. What does it mean to know what a game is? What does it mean, to know it and not be able to say it? Is this knowledge somehow equivalent to an unformulated definition? So that if it were formulated I should be able to recognize it as the expression of my knowledge? Isn't my knowledge, my concept of a game, completely expressed in the explanations that I could give? That is, in my describing examples of various kinds of game; shewing how all sorts of other games can be constructed on the analogy of these; saying that I should scarcely include this or this among games; and so on.

76. If someone were to draw a sharp boundary I could not acknowledge it as the one that I too always wanted to draw, or had drawn in my mind. For I did not want to draw one at all. His concept can then be said to be not the same as mine, but akin to it. The kinship is that of two pictures, one of which consists of colour patches with vague contours, and the other of patches similarly shaped and distributed, but with clear contours. The kinship is just as undeniable as the difference.

Notice that, while no sharp boundary can be drawn to the proceedings that we (i.e., English speakers) call 'games,' a sharp boundary can be drawn for a special purpose. However, the concept that is delineated by the sharp boundary is not the same as the normal concept, but akin to it. The concept that Suits creates by drawing a sharp boundary is similar to (but also different than) our concept of a game. And while the novel concept can, no doubt, be used for some purpose that is "philosophically interesting," it hardly shows that the normal concept admits of an exact definition.

So please, enough of this silliness about Suits refuting Wittgenstein.

[Update: Simon Blackburn has responded here.]

[Update: Norman Geras of normblog has given a nice response to Suits's argrument.]

17 comments:

Gary Williams said...

While Wittgenstein is correct to point out that he isn't obligated to acknowledge the "sharp boundary", that doesn't mean a definition hasn't been given.

So, it isn't so much that Suits "refutes" Wittgenstein, but rather he shows that it is possible to give a plausible, "substantially correct" definition that can "withstand a barrage of objections." What more could Wittgenstein want?

Suits says in the preface that "It seems altogether more reasonable to begin with the hypothesis that some things are definable and some are not, and that the only way to find out which are which is to follow Wittgenstein's excellent advice and look and see.

N. N. said...

Gary,

I agree that Suits gives a definition. But he has not given a definition of what English speakers call 'games.' Instead, his definition marks off a concept that has both similarities and differences with our concept of a game.

What do you mean by 'substantially correct'? Certainly a lot of games fall under Suits's concept. But many do not, and many things that we would not call 'games' do. This isn't to say that Suits's definition isn't perfectly useful for various purposes. It's only to say that it isn't exactly what we mean by 'game.' And that's because there isn't any sharp boundary to our concept of a game.

Duck said...

Gary, I'm not sure I understand your comment (no one's attacking Suits's analysis of what *he* calls "games", which is the point of his book, not Wittgenstein, who is merely the butt of a throwaway comment at the beginning), but let me say this much:

People who haven't read Philosophical Investigations (and some who have) think they heard somewhere that Wittgenstein claims that some or all words "can't be defined" because they are "family resemblance concepts" with "no essences". Professor Suits thinks he knows why we value prowess at sports and games. Apparently he believes that in order to explain why this is, he needs a strict definition of "game," and that his providing one shows that Wittgenstein was mistaken.

This in itself is odd; why would one think that whatever Suits wants to say about prowess at sports requires that some particular word be strictly defined, such that it was important to run through a whole bunch of "objections" and defenses to the proposed definition? Is the point supposed to be not simply a priori but also analytic?? So what if some sport (say, hiking) isn't really a "game", or even if some game (say, Russian roulette, "proficiency" at which is hardly admirable, The Deer Hunter notwithstanding) doesn't have the relevant property? How could that possibly damage the argument, such that Suits must dig in his heels and say no, these and only these are really "games"?

As N. N. shows here, a quick glance at the Investigations reveals that this is a bizarre misreading of Wittgenstein's point about games (and "game") – not to mention that it manifests just the pathological sort of philosophical procedure most in need of Wittgensteinian "therapy". And as my own reading of the book finds particular importance in Wittgenstein's example here, I regard the exegetical carelessness of Hurka et al here doubly distressing. The whole business reminds me of this post at Nominally Yours, where commenter Jon wrote: "I am continually amazed at how many working, writing professional philosophers seem to have read Wittgenstein while... watching TV, or something."

Interestingly, my reading of Wittgenstein apparently puts me some distance from N. N. on more serious points. So if we agree about this, then you may take that as evidence that what we both oppose here really is an elementary error (though of course that isn't entailed by our agreement). Of course, w/r/t our disagreements, I would never say that N. N. only read Wittgenstein while watching TV!

By the way, N., I've been reading Gordon Baker recently, with approval (e.g. about PI §122, although that particular article (in Arrington and Glock) I already knew). I take it you regard him as having gone all to hell since collaborating with Hacker?

Oh, and good post.

DR said...

Kieran Satiya blogs about this (from a different angle) here: http://ideasofimperfection.blogspot.com/

Duck said...

Thanks DR, I didn't know Kieran was posting again. You're right that he takes a different angle; N. N. and I are more concerned to combat the bizarre misreading of Wittgenstein than to dispute Suits's analysis of "games." Apparently there are problems there as well!

DR said...

Yes, it isn't only that a straw Wittgenstein is being beaten, but that it's being beaten with a broken stick. This would be strange if it weren't so common.

N. N. said...

I wanted to separate the straw man from the broken stick, but it's clear that, as a definition of 'game,' Suits's definition is problematic.

Over at Virtual Philosopher, Hurka comments

"Another example Suits gave in an article is reading mystery novels. The idea is to figure out who did it, but you forbid yourself the most efficient means, which is reading the last page first. And you do that because you want to solve the mystery in the less efficient way. So reading mysteries is a paradigm example of a game. (So is writing school exams: the goal is to write down the right answer to the question, but you're not allowed the most efficient means, which is looking it up in a book. Exams are used for a further purpose, i.e. to test student knowledge, but games can in general be used for a further purpose, e.g. deciding which suitor gets to marry the girl by having them play a tennis game.)"

So reading mystery novels and taking exams are paradigmatic examples of 'games.'

Other counterexamples would involve 'games' that aren't played either for any particular goal or according to definite rules, and a 'game' in which the rule is to accomplish the end by the most efficient method.

All this would be fine, I suppose, if Wittgenstein hadn't been dragged in. I'm guessing that the reason for mentioning Wittgenstein at all is merely to trump up the significance of Suits's project.

N. N. said...

Dave,

I havn't read much of Baker's writings (other than the commentaries he wrote with Hacker). I liked his "Verehrung und Verkehrung: Waismann and Wittgenstein," and his edited volume (Voices of Wittgenstein) of Waismann's notes on Wittgenstein's philosophy is invaluable. From what I gather, he's gone over to the "dark side," along with the likes of Rhees, McGuinness, Winch, Diamond and Conant. There's a forthcoming book on his philosophy (Gordon Baker and His Critics) that contains an article by Conant and Putnam titled "On Gordon Baker’s Interpretation of Wittgenstein."

Duck said...

Thanks for the tip - I'll look for it. Of course, Conant has so much stuff "forthcoming" that it may be 2018 before we see this one. Not online anywhere, that paper, is it?

We can go into this some other time, but your chosen avatars of darkness strike me as a fairly diverse lot. "New Wittgensteinians," okay, but Winch, Rhees, McGuinness and now Baker?

I'll put Voices of Wittgenstein on my list. What I've been reading is Wittgenstein's Method: Neglected Aspects, and if for any reason you want a quick way into my own reading, you could do worse than the first paper in that collection, "PI §122: Neglected Aspects" (together with the "excursus" from Cavell's Claim of Reason - season with Davidson to taste). Dark enough for you?

N. N. said...

Briefly, the "dark side" is a family resemblance expression. The first anti-metaphysical readings of the Tractatus were put forward by Winch, Ishiguro and Rhees. These were followed by McGuinness, and later (as in, the last few years) McGinn. Though there are significant differences, these commentators are in agreement with the New Wittgensteinians insofar as both reject a metaphysical reading of the Tractatus (albeit, for different reasons). I threw Baker in with this lot because I read (somewhere) that his reading of the 'later' philosophy anticipates the New Wittgenstein reading. (As far as I know, the later Baker isn't interested in the Tractatus.

I'll see if I can get a hold of Wittgenstein's Method, and we can discuss it.

DR said...

The introduction to Wittgenstein's Method (written by Katherine Morris) distinguishes between three Gordon Bakers: the early Baker, who defends a Wittgensteinian theory of meaning that emphasizes criteria; the middle Baker, who rejects this theory and sees the task of Wittgensteinian philosophy as being not the development of any theory, but the policing of the boundary between sense and nonsense, offering correction to those who stray; and the late Baker, who sees Wittgenstein as more of a psychotherapist than a policeman. Morris says that this Baker is radically different from other Wittgensteinians, "even to some extent" from the New Wittgensteinians. She notes that his later view does have affinities with that of Crary, Read, et al., though. Apparently he wrote a review of The New Wittgenstein in which "his principal complaint about their handling of the later Wittgenstein is their overly programmatic treatment of Wittgenstein's 'distinctive and multi-faceted vision of philosophical therapy'."

Duck said...

Huh, that's pretty much my problem with them too. Another point to Baker.

I have to say, w/r/t to "metaphysical" and "anti-metaphysical" readings of the TLP, those terms could pretty much mean anything in that most peculiar of contexts. Just like in Hegel, for that matter. But I think I get the general idea. I don't know what they say about the TLP, but I do like what I've read from Rhees and Phillips. Phillips was your advisor, wasn't he, DR?

BTW, N. N., here's some black humor for you if you haven't seen it already:

http://youtube.com/watch?v=jJHb9m4ccmQ

DR said...

I'm not sure what Baker means by "overly programmatic." Is this supposed to be a criticism of Cavell, for instance? If I were going to criticize him I don't think those would be the words I would use. But I'm not sure who exactly he had in mind.

Yes, Phillips was my adviser in Swansea. He liked Mounce's book on the TLP very much, I know that. He also tended to agree with Winch as, I think, did Rhees. I suppose these people are all on the dark side, but it's not as if they all agree with each other about everything. It would be funny if Rhees was a "new" Wittgensteinian.

N. N. said...

The "dark siders" I mentioned are in agreement (a loose agreement because they have very differnt objections) against a reading of the Tractatus that is perhaps best typified by Malcolm's Nothing is Hidden and Pears's False Prison. Though 'metaphysical' interpreters disagree over the details (e.g., what are 'objects'), they all hold that, for the early Wittgenstein, the logic of our language mirrors the logic of a reality that is independent of language. On that question, I side with Pears and Malcolm (along with Ramsey, Anscombe, Geach, Kenny, Black, Hacker, and others).

Thanks for the video. Aside from the taking solace in a New England victory (which I absolutely would not), I can identify with the sentiment expressed in it.

Duck said...

I'm not sure what Baker means by "overly programmatic." Is this supposed to be a criticism of Cavell, for instance? If I were going to criticize him I don't think those would be the words I would use. But I'm not sure who exactly he had in mind.

I think the NW's are "overly programmatic" (when they are) in trying to make everything in Wittgenstein, early and late, boil down to the rejection of "substantial nonsense". Cavell and McDowell do show up in the "NW" collection, but more as precursors than as NW's themselves (Diamond, Conant, etc.). I'm perfectly happy with Cavell's and McDowell's rejection (in Wittgenstein and in real life) of the "external standpoint" (see Crary's introduction), but I agree that neither of them can really be accused of being "overly programmatic" for that.

Duck said...

Oh, and N. N., you should add Eugen Fischer and Oskari Kuusela to your scholars w/papers links (they're at UEA - click on the R. Read link). That sounds like a good place to be for LW study! Garry Hagberg is there too (but he doesn't have any papers up).

rocketsled said...

In a recent piece for the New York Times “Idea Lab” [http://www.nytimes.com/2007/12/09/magazine/09wwln-idealab-t.html?_r=1&oref=slogin&ref=magazine&pagewanted=all], K. A. Appiah offers an “x-phi”
corrective to Wittgenstein’s habit of imperious pronouncements: “Wittgenstein once declared,” he writes, “‘We do in fact call “isn’t the weather glorious today?” a question, although it is used as a statement.’ If you actually proposed to do some research to make sure, he would have thought you mad, or impertinent. Philosophers have always been wonderfully confident in their ability to say what ‘it would be natural to say.’ This confidence, experiments show, can sometimes lead us astray.”
Maybe Appiah was watching T.V. while reading....
jojo rocketsled, “Rough Ground”
[http://blog.360.yahoo.com/blog-hMZObXY7dKziV3vn_pZxYOKSJYtCdw8-?cq=1]

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N. N.
I am a doctoral student in philosophy writing a dissertation on Wittgenstein.
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